VPTAC Sample Paper for Pharmacy competitive examination, MCQ (With Explanation )-5

Q 1. Treated soda lime glass chemical resistances is evaluated by following test?
A) Fused glass test B) Water attack test C) H2SO4 attack test D)Powdered glass test

Ans = B, Treated sodalime glass (Type-II) used for Buffered Aqueous solution with pH below 7, Dry powders & Oligogenic Substance.

Powdered glass test for = Brosilicate (Type-I), Regular Sodalime Type-III), General purpose (Type-NP)

Q 2. Cab-O-sil used as
a) Lubricant b) Antiadherent c) Glidant d) Disintegrant

Ans = C, Cab-O-Sil fumed silica is a white, free-flowing powder of extremely high purity. It is widely used as a glidant in tablet and capsule formulations.

Q 3. Type I hypersensitivity mediated by immunoglobulins is
A). IgE B). IgD C). IgM D). IgA

Ans= A, In type-I reaction IgE antibody involve, degranulation of mast cell, reaction occur with in 30 minutes, Ex.= anaphylactic shock, hey fever, asthma.

Q 4. which of the following mediate secondary response?
A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG

Ans = D, In type-II reaction IgM and IgG antibody involve, reaction occur with in 5-12 hrs. Ex.= Rh incompatability

Q 5. Toxic features of atropine include the following, except:
A). Tachycardia B). Blurred vision C). Urinary retention D). Hypothermia

Ans = D , Atropine inhibits sweating and stimulates the temperature-regulating center of the hypothalamus hence the body temperature rises. Larger doses of atropine block the vagal effects on M2 muscarinic receptors on the SA nodal pace maker hence there is tachycardia. It has a relaxant action on the ureter and the urinary bladder hence urinary retention may occur in old males with prostatic hypertrophy. The lenss is fixed for far vision hence near objects appear blurred.

Q 6. Cyclosporine :
A). Is excreted unchanged from the body.
B). Is derived from a bacterium.
C). Has a selective inhibitory effect on T-lymphocytes.
D). Is not absorbed orally.

Ans = C, Cyclosporine is obtained from a soil fungus Tolypocladium inflatum gams. It has a selective inhibitory effect on T-lymphocytes, suppressing the early cellular response to antigenic stimuli. It can be administered both orally as well as intravenously. It gets metabolized extensively in the liver and various drugs, which affect cytochrome P450, affect its clearance.

Q 7. Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria:

A. Chloramphenicol

B. Ciprofloxacin

C. Streptomycin

D. Vancomycin

Ans. B. Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic broad-spectrum antibiotic, alongside the tetracyclines . Chloramphenicol, also known as chlornitromycin, is effective against a wide variety of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including most anaerobic organisms.  Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic drug that stops bacterial growth by inhibiting protein synthesis. Chloramphenicol prevents protein chain elongation by inhibiting the peptidyl transferase activity of the bacterial ribosome.

Ciprofloxacin is second-generation quinolones are a family of synthetic broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs. Quinolones exert their antibacterial effect by preventing bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating.

Streptomycin is an antibiotic (antimycobacterial) drug, the first of a class of drugs called aminoglycosides. It is derived from the actinobacterium Streptomyces griseus. Streptomycin is a protein synthesis inhibitor. It binds to the small 16S rRNA of the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome, interfering with the binding of formyl-methionyl-tRNA to the 30S subunit. This leads to codon misreading, eventual inhibition of protein synthesis and ultimately death of microbial cells through mechanisms that are still not understood. Speculation on this mechanism indicates that the binding of the molecule to the 30S subunit interferes with 50S subunit association with the mRNA strand. This results in an unstable ribosomal-mRNA complex, leading to a frameshift mutation and defective protein synthesis; leading to cell death. 

Vancomycin is of the glycopeptide antibiotic class and is effective mostly against Gram-positive bacteria. Vancomycin acts by inhibiting proper cell wall synthesis in Gram-positive bacteria. The large hydrophilic molecule is able to form hydrogen bond interactions with the terminal D-alanyl-D-alanine moieties of the NAM/NAG-peptides. Under normal circumstances, this is a five-point interaction.

 

Q 8. Absorption of oral iron preparation can be facilitated by co-administering:

A. Antacids

B. Tetracyclines

C. Phosphates

D. Ascorbic Acid

Ans. D.   A higher bioavailability of the dietary iron can be achieved by increasing the content of food components enhancing iron absorption (ascorbic acid, meat/fish) or by decreasing the content of inhibitors (e.g., phytates, tannins). The key role of ascorbic acid for the absorption of dietary nonheme iron is generally accepted. The reasons for its action are twofold: (1) the prevention of the formation of insoluble and unabsorbable iron compounds and (2) the reduction of ferric to ferrous iron, which seems to be a requirement for the uptake of iron into the mucosal cells.

It is often recommended to individuals who have iron deficiency (anemia) that they take their iron supplements with orange juice. This is because the vitamin C in the orange juice aids in iron absorption. When vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, enters the stomach it mixes with the iron supplement that contains non-heme iron. The ascorbic acid is able to reduce iron from its non-heme form to a form called ferric iron. The ferric iron then leaves the stomach and enters the small intestine. Iron absorption in the small intestine is able to occur because the iron is in this ferric form. Ferric iron has a low pH, which enables the mucous cells of the small intestine lining to take up the iron. If it wasn't for the vitamin C converting non-heme iron into ferric iron, the iron would pass through the body and not be absorbed.

Q 9. Interferon is used in :

A. Hepatitis B

B. AIDS

C. Both A and B

D. None

Ans. C, Interferons (IFNs) are proteins made and released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, parasites or tumor cells. They allow for communication between cells to trigger the protective defenses of the immune system that help eradicate pathogens.

IFNs belong to the large class of glycoproteins known as cytokines. Interferons are named after their ability to "interfere" with viral replication by protecting cells from virus infection. IFNs have other functions: they activate immune cells, such as natural killer cells and macrophages; they increase host defenses by up-regulating antigen presentation by virtue of increasing the expression of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigens. Certain symptoms of infections, such as fever, muscle pain and "flu-like symptoms", are also caused by the production of IFNs and other cytokines.

More than twenty distinct IFN genes and proteins have been identified in animals, including humans. They are typically divided among three classes: Type I IFN, Type II IFN, and Type III IFN. IFNs belonging to all IFN classes are important for fighting viral infections and for the regulation of the immune system.

Q 10. Foscarnate inhibits viral:

A. DNA polymerase

B. Revese transcriptase

C. Both A and B

D. None

Ans. C, Foscarnet is the conjugate base of the chemical compound with the formula HO₂CPO₃H₂.

This phosphonic acid derivativeis an antiviral medication used to treat herpes viruses, including drug-resistant cytomegalovirus (CMV) and herpes simplex viruses types 1 and 2 (HSV-1 and HSV-2). It is particularly used to treat CMV retinitis. Foscarnet can be used to treat highly treatment-experienced patients with HIV as part of salvage therapy.

Foscarnet is a structural mimic of the anion pyrophosphate   that selectively inhibits the pyrophosphate binding site  on viral DNA polymerases at concentrations that do not affect human DNA polymerases.

MOA: inhibits viral DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase and HIV reverse transcriptase directly without requiring activation by phosphorylation -IV use only -large nephrotoxicity -very good against CMV, herpes simplex and pts w/ acute flairs of HIV -second-line drug for CMV retinitis, colitis, pneumonitis, esophagitis, as well as acyclovir resistant VZV and HSV infections in immunocompromised pts

VPTAC Sample Paper for Pharmacy competitive examination, MCQ (With Explanation )-4

Q 1.Vasodilation by histamine is mediated via?
A). H2 B). H3 C). H1 D). Both A and C

Ans. D

Q 2 .Oxytocin is a?
A). Octapeptide B). Heptapeptide C). Decapeptide D). Pentapeptide

Ans. (A) Octapeptide, if you not find Nonapeptide in option than correct answer (A) Octapeptide
Read carefully>>>> Oxytocin is a peptide of nine amino acids (a nonapeptide).
Its systematic name is cysteine-tyrosine-isoleucine-glutamine-asparagine-cysteine-proline-leucine-glycine-amide (cys – tyr – ile – gln – asn – cys – pro – leu – gly – NH2, or CYIQNCPLG-NH2).
The biologically active form of oxytocin, commonly measured by Radioimmunoassay and/or High-performance liquid chromatography techniques, is also known as the octapeptide "oxytocin disulfide" (oxidized form), but oxytocin also exists as a reduced dithiol nonapeptide called oxytoceine.

Q 3. Bactericidal inhibitor of Protein synthesis is?
A). Penicillin-G B). Erythromycin C). Gentamycin D). Tetracyclin

Ans. C, Gentamycin, Amikacin, Netilmicin, Spectinomycin (Aminoglycosides class) inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomal subunit (killing bacterial cell-Bactericidal). Erythromycin (Bacteriostatic, Narrow-spectrum) & Tetracyclin (Bacteriostatic, Broad-spectrum) act by reversible inhibition of protein synthesis by action on ribosomes. Penicillin-G (Bactericidal, Narrow-spectrum) act by inhibition of synthesis of cell-wall (Inhibit polymerization Enzyme- transpeptidase.

Q 4. Antagonist for Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is?
A). Cycloserine B). Hydralazine C). Penicillamine D). All of the above
Note:- Pyridoxine also used in treatment of Organophosphate poisoning.

Ans. D

Q 5. Ammonium bromide (82Br) injection is used for?
A). Thyroid scanning and study of thyroid uptake
B). Study of iron metabolism and RBC formation
C). Treatment of polycythema vera (overproduction of RBC)
D). Extracellular water measurement

Ans. D Extracellular water measurement

Q 6. Dimercaprol (BAL) is used for poisoning of?
A). Antimony B). Lead C). Arsenic D). All
Ans. D
Note:-BAL (British anti-lewisite) = 2,3-dimercaptopropanol is also used for Gold (Au), Murcury (Hg) and other toxic metal poisoning ¤

Q 7 . Sigma blade mixers are commonly used in? A). Wet granulation B). Powder mixing C). Crude fibre mixing D). Dry granulation

Ans = A , Sigma blade mixer (agitator) most commonly used mixer for mixing semisolids of plastic consistences.

Q 8. Ergot powder gives blue colour with: A). Wagner's reagent B).Ferric chloride C).Mayer's reagent D). p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

Ans = D, (p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde )
Van Urk's test (for Ergot Alkaloids) = Test for Ergotoxin
Extract with CHCl3 and Na2CO3 → Separate CHCl3 layer → 0.1 g p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde + 100 ml 35 % H2SO4 + 1.5 ml 5 % FeCl3 → Blue colour

Q 9. The Krabbe’s disease result in the deficiency of the enzyme
a) Galactocerebrosidase            b) hexosaminidase
c) Sphingomylase                     d) Tyrosinase

Ans = A
Krabbe disease (also known as globoid cell leukodystrophy or galactosylceramide lipidosis) is a rare, often fatal degenerative disorder that affects the myelin sheath of the nervous system. It is a form of sphingolipidosis, as it involves dysfunctional metabolism of sphingolipids. This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern.

Galactosylceramidase (or galactocerebrosidase) is an enzyme that in humans is encoded by the GALC gene. Galactosylceramidase is an enzyme which removes galactose from ceramide derivatives (galactocerebrosides). Galactosylceramidase is a lysosomal protein which hydrolyzes the galactose ester bonds of galactocerebroside, galactosylsphingosine, lactosylceramide, and monogalactosyldiglyceride.

Mutations in this gene have been associated with Krabbe disease, also known as globoid cell leukodystrophy.

Q 10. Prolonged administration of following drug causes hoarseness of voice
a) Propranolol b) Thiazides c) Neuroleptics d) Corticosteroids

answer = D
The corticosteroids that are inhaled to treat asthma today are considered safe. This is because the medicine, which is breathed in through a puffer, goes directly into the lungs where it reduces inflammation in the airways. A steroid tablet that is swallowed has more side effects because a large amount goes into the blood stream and is carried to other parts of the body. Side effects from inhaled corticosteroids are minor when the proper amount is taken. A few people get a cough, hoarseness or husky voice, sore throat or thrush (a yeast infection). Patients can protect against these discomforts by rinsing their mouth, gargling with water and spitting out, to remove any medicine left in the mouth.

Pharmacology MCQ

1. A patient who requires a higher dose to achieve the same therapeutic

effect is said to

(a) be cured. (b) be addicted to the drug.

(c) have developed a tolerance to the drug. (d) None of the above

Ans. C

2. A patient who is allergic to shellfish is not likely to be allergic to some

medications.(a) True(b) False

Ans. B

3. What type of injection is used to prevent medication from leaking back onto the tissue?

(a) IM(b) Z-Track(c) SC (d) None of the above

Ans. B,  When a medication is injected directly into muscle, it is called an intramuscular injection (IM). The Z-track method of IM is used to prevent tracking (leakage) of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue (underneath the skin).

During the procedure, skin and tissue are pulled and held firmly while a long needle is inserted into the muscle. After the medication is injected, the skin and tissue are released. The needle track that forms during this procedure takes the shape of the letter “Z,” which gives the procedure its name. This zigzag track line is what prevents medication from leaking from the muscle into surrounding tissue. 

The procedure is usually administered by a nurse or doctor. In some cases, you may be instructed in how to perform Z-track injections on yourself at home.

Side effects can include swelling and injection discomfort. Z-track injection is usually less painful than a traditional IM injection.

4. Order: 1000 mL of IV fluid q12h. Available: 1000 mL of IV fluid and

microdrip tubing. How many gtts per minute will the nurse regulate the IV?

(a) 83 gtt/min (b) 83.3 gtt/min (c) 8.33 gtt/min (d) .833 gtt/min

Ans. A

5. Peppermint may relieve migraine headaches when rubbed on the forehead.(a) True (b) False

Ans. B

6. Water-soluble vitamins are excreted in urine shortly after they are absorbed. (a) True (b) False

Ans. A

7. Blenderized enteral feedings are

(a) lactose-free liquid. (b) powered mixed with milk.

(c) liquids that are individually prepared based on the nutritional needs of the patient.

(d) powered mixed with water.

Ans. C, Hospital prepared blenderized enteral tube feedings render unpredictable levels of micronutrients and macronutrients and appear likely to deliver less than the desired amounts of nutrients. Additionally, the viscosity of these feedings may be unsuitable for infusion through feeding tubes.

8. When administering enteral feedings, the patient may become dizzy if:

(a) large amounts of solution is administered rapidly. (b) the solution is too concentrated.  (c) the patient is supine (lying flat on back). (d) none of the above.

Ans. A

9. Which of the following medications prevents the formation of blood clots?

(a) Analgesic (b) Antipyretic (c) Anticoagulant (d) All of the above

Ans. C, Anticoagulants (antithrombics, fibrinolytic, and thrombolytics) are a class of drugs that work to prevent the coagulation (clotting) of blood. Such substances occur naturally in leeches and blood-sucking insects. A group of pharmaceuticals called anticoagulants can be used in vivo as a medication for thrombotic disorders.

nticoagulants reduce blood clotting. This prevents deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction and ischemic stroke.

Coumarins (vitamin K antagonists)

These oral anticoagulants are derived from coumarin, which is found in many plants. A prominent member of this class is warfarin (Coumadin). It takes at least 48 to 72 hours for the anticoagulant effect to develop. Where an immediate effect is required, heparin must be given concomitantly. These anticoagulants are used to treat patients with deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism (PE) and to prevent emboli in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF), and mechanical prosthetic heart valves.

10. A infant does not receive a full dose of the drug given to its mother when the infant breastfeeds. (a) True (b) False

Ans. A

VPTAC Sample Paper for Pharmacy competitive examination, MCQ (With Explanation )-3

1. ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY - TYROSINE - is a/an a) amino acid and protein b) anti-biotic c) glycoside d) a fibrous tissue .

Ans 1. A, It is a non-essential amino acid with a polar side group. Tyrosine is a precursor to neurotransmitters and increases plasma neurotransmitter levels (particularly dopamine and norepinephrine) but has little if any effect on mood. The effect on mood is more noticeable in humans subjected to stressful conditions (see below).

A number of studies have found tyrosine to be useful during conditions of stress, cold, fatigue,loss of a loved one such as in death or divorce, prolonged work and sleep deprivation, with reductions in stress hormone levels, reductions in stress-induced weight loss seen in animal trials, improvements in cognitive and physical performance seen in human trials; however, because tyrosine hydroxylase is the rate-limiting enzyme, effects are less significant than those of L-DOPA.

2. ALVEOLI - are ___sacs. a) air b) blood c) lymph d) cerebro-spinal fluid .

Ans 2. A, An alveolus is an anatomical structure that has the form of a hollow cavity. Found in the lung parenchyma, the pulmonary alveoli are the terminal ends of the respiratory tree, which outcrop from either alveolar sacs or alveolar ducts, which are both sites of gas exchange with the blood as well. Alveoli are particular to mammalian lungs. Different structures are involved in gas exchange in other vertebrates. The alveolar membrane is the gas-exchange surface. Carbon dioxide rich blood is pumped from the rest of the body into the alveolar blood vessels where, through diffusion, it releases its carbon dioxide and absorbs oxygen.

3. ANERGY - is a ___disorder. a) organic disorder b) immunological disorder c) speech disorder  d) sleep disorder .

 

Ans 3.B, Anergy is a term in immunobiology that describes a lack of reaction by the body's defense mechanisms to foreign substances, and consists of a direct induction of peripheral lymphocyte tolerance. An individual in a state of anergy often indicates that the immune system is unable to mount a normal immune response against a specific antigen, usually a self-antigen. Lymphocytes are said to be anergic when they fail to respond to their specific antigen. Anergy is one of three processes that induce tolerance, modifying the immune system to prevent self-destruction (the others being clonal deletion and immunoregulation).

4. CHLORPROMAZINE - is a/an a) anti-coagulant b) stimulant c) tranquilliser d) anodyne .

 

Ans 4. C, Chlorpromazine is a dopamine antagonist of the typical antipsychotic class of medications possessing additional antiadrenergic, antiserotonergic, anticholinergic and antihistaminergic properties used to treat schizophrenia.

Chlorpromazine is classified as a low-potency typical antipsychotic and in the past was used in the treatment of both acute and chronic psychoses, including schizophrenia and the manic phase of bipolar disorder as well as amphetamine-induced psychoses. Low-potency antipsychotics have more anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth, sedation and constipation, and lower rates of extrapyramidal side effects, while high-potency antipsychotics (such as haloperidol) have the reverse profile.

5. Cushing's disease - may lead to a) anorexia b) difficult breathing c) obesity d) deafness .

 

Ans 5. C, Cushing's syndrome describes the signs and symptoms associated with prolonged exposure to inappropriately high levels of the hormone cortisol. This can be caused by taking glucocorticoid drugs, or diseases that result in excess cortisol, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), or CRH levels.

Cushing's disease refers to a pituitary-dependent cause of Cushing's syndrome: a tumor (adenoma) in the pituitary gland produces large amounts of ACTH, causing the adrenal glands to produce elevated levels of cortisol. It is the most common non-iatrogenic cause of Cushing's syndrome, responsible for 70% of cases excluding glucocorticoid related cases. An easy way to distinguish Cushing's syndrome (primary hypercortisolism, specifically) from Cushing's disease is that the measured ACTH levels are lower in the former. The decrease in ACTH is due to increased negative feedback of cortisol on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.

This pathology was described by Harvey Cushing in 1932.The syndrome is also called Itsenko-Cushing syndrome,hyperadrenocorticism or hypercorticism.

Cushing's syndrome is not confined to humans and is also a relatively common condition in domestic dogs and horses. It also occurs in cats, however, rarely.

Symptoms include rapid weight gain, particularly of the trunk and face with sparing of the limbs (central obesity). Common signs include the growth of fat pads along the collarbone, on the back of the neck or "buffalo hump" and on the face "moon facies". Other symptoms include hyperhidrosis (excess sweating), telangiectasia (dilation of capillaries), thinning of the skin (which causes easy bruising and dryness, particularly the hands) and other mucous membranes, purple or red striae (the weight gain in Cushing's syndrome stretches the skin, which is thin and weakened, causing it to hemorrhage) on the trunk, buttocks, arms, legs or breasts, proximal muscle weakness (hips, shoulders), and hirsutism (facial male-pattern hair growth), baldness and/or extremely dry and brittle hair. In rare cases, Cushing's can cause hypocalcemia. The excess cortisol may also affect other endocrine systems and cause, for example, insomnia, inhibited aromatase, reduced libido, impotence in men, amenorrhoea/oligomenorrhea and infertility in women due to elevations in androgens. Studies have also shown that the resultant amenorrhea is due to hypercortisolism, which feeds back onto the hypothalamus resulting in decreased levels of GnRH release.

6. Cushing's disease - may result from the malfunctioning of ___ gland. a) adrenal gland b) prostate gland c) pituitary gland d) thyroid gland .

 

Ans 6. A, Cushing's disease refers to a pituitary-dependent cause of Cushing's syndrome: a tumor (adenoma) in the pituitary gland produces large amounts of ACTH, causing the adrenal glands to produce elevated levels of cortisol. It is the most common non-iatrogenic cause of Cushing's syndrome, responsible for 70% of cases excluding glucocorticoid related cases. An easy way to distinguish Cushing's syndrome (primary hypercortisolism, specifically) from Cushing's disease is that the measured ACTH levels are lower in the former. The decrease in ACTH is due to increased negative feedback of cortisol on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.

7. DEXAMETHASONE - is a) anti-coagulant b) vasodilater c) steroid d) none .

Ans 7. C, Dexamethasone is a potent synthetic member of the glucocorticoid class of steroid drugs that has anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects. It is 25 times more potent than cortisol in its glucocorticoid effect, while having minimal mineralocorticoid effect.

8. DIMENHYDRINATE - is a) antiemetic b) antihistamine c) both d) none .

Ans 8. C, Dimenhydrinate is an over-the-counter drug used to prevent nausea and motion sickness. It is most commonly prepared as tablets, although it is also available in liquid form and in suppositories. Dimenhydrinate is a combination of two drugs: diphenhydramine and 8-chlorotheophylline, a chlorinated derivative of theophylline.

Dimenhydrinate is primarily used for nausea and vomiting.
Diphenhydramine is the primary constituent of dimenhydrinate and dictates the primary effect. The main difference relative to pure diphenhydramine is a lower potency due to being combined with 8-chlorotheophylline. 50 mg of dimenhydrinate contains 27.2 mg of diphenhydramine.

8-Chlorotheophylline was added in order to counteract drowsiness. Theophylline is very closely related to caffeine and theobromine, mild central nervous system stimulants. It was thought by scientists that by combining the antiemetic effects of diphenhydramine with a stimulant, the extreme drowsiness induced by the former could be mitigated somewhat by the latter. The sedation caused by diphenhydramine, however, is substantially stronger than the stimulation caused by 8-chlorotheophylline, so the overall effect is still mostly sedating.

9. GONADS - can be found in a) males b) females c) both d) only in adult males .

Ans 9. C, The gonad is the organ that makes gametes. The gonads in males are the testes, and the gonads in females are the ovaries. The product, gametes, are haploid germ cells. For example, spermatozoon and egg cells are gametes.

10. Gonads - produce ___ cells. a) brain cells b) red blood cells c) white blood cells

d) sex cells .

Ans 10.D