Tuesday 18 February 2014

GATE-1990 (Pharmaceutical Science)



(1). Choose the correct answers.
Q.1 Reserpine on hydrolysis gives
a) Reserpic acid + Methyl alcohol + Trimethoxy Cinnamic acid
b) Reserpic acid + Acetic acid + Trimethoxy Benzaldehyde
c) Reserpic acid + Methyl alcohol + Trimethoxy Benzoic acid
d) Reserpic acid + Methyl alcohol + Trimethoxy Cinnamaldehyde
Q.2 Papaverine is
a) 6,7-dimethoxy-1-(3’-4’-dimethoxy benzyl) isoquinoline
b) 6,7-dimethoxy-1-(3’-4’-dimethyl benzyl) isoquinoline
c) 6,7-dimethoxy-1-(3’-4’-dimethoxy benzyl)quinoline
d) 6,7-dimethyl-1-(3’-4’-dimethyl benzyl) isoquinoline

Q.3 Titanium dioxide is commonly present in
a) Vanishing cream   b) Sun screen cream    c) Aqueous calamine cream    d) Ophthalmic cream
Q.4 Powdered ergot when treated with sodium hydroxide solution develops
a) A strong odour of ammonia      b) A strong odour of trimethylamine
 c) A strong  odour of indole        d) A strong odour of urea (Trease & Evans, 15th edition, page no 374)
Q.5 Salbutamol sulphate I.P. is assayed by
a) Direct titration with standard sodium hydroxide solution
b) Direct titration with standard solution of hydrochloric acid
c) A known amount of standard acid is added and excess is titrated with standard alkali
d) Dissolve in glacial acetic acid and titrated with standard perchloric acid using orcets blue
Q.6 Heparin prevents blood coagulation by
a) Inhibiting thrombin catalyzed conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
 b) precipitate blood calcium thereby prevent coagulation reaction
c) Inhibiting enzyme reaction                             d) Converting ionized calcium into chelation
Q.7 For the registration of pharmacists in the various states, the Pharmacy Act provides for the constitution
a) Registration Tribunals                                     b) Registrar of Co-operative societies
c) Registrar of State Pharmacy Council              d) Registrar of Central Pharmacy Council
Q.8 Powdered digitalis is dried at a temperature
a) Not exceeding 600C                  b) 650C                  c) 750C                      d) 1000C

Q.9 Pranzepam differs in structure from diazepam by
a) N-methyl group                                   b) N-cyclopropyl group
c) N-cyclopropylmethyl group                d) N-propyl group
Q.10 The mechanism of action of Rifampicin involves
a) Inhibition of bacterial DNA-directed RNA polymerase
b) Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
c) Inhibition of protein synthesis                               d) Inhibition of transpeptidase
Q.11 The UV-Visible region in the electromagnetic spectrum of radiation is
a) 200 - 400 nm b) 300 - 600 nm c) 400 - 800 nm d) 200 - 800 nm
Q.12 The Mantoux test uses
a) Old tuberculin test        b) Diphtheria toxin      c) Serum albumin  d) Polysaccharide antigen
Q.13 Rotosort is a machine used to sort out
a) Coated tablets          b) Filled capsule           c) Sealed ampoules             d) Sealed containers
Q.14 The volume of distribution of a drug is
a) An expression of total body volume                 b) A measure of total fluid volume
c) A relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the concentration of the drug in the blood                                                          d) proportional to bioavailability of the drug
Q.15 Resolution of a spectrophotometer is
a) Its wavelength range                            b) Its stability to distinguish adjacent absorption bands
c) Its capacity for its continuous use       d) Its powder to gather light according to source
Q.16 Haloperidol is major tranquilizer. It belongs to the class of
a) Carbamate            b) Propanediol           c) Butyrophenone               d) Phenothiazine
Q.17 Glandular hairs having a unicellular or occasionally a short uniserate pedical with a unicellular or bicellular terminal gland is characteristic of
a) Senna leaves              b) Belladonna leaves           c) Datura stramonium leaves
d) Digitalis purpurea leaves (Trease & Evans, 15th edition, page no 307)
Q.18Skeletal muscle relaxation produced by the drug....is effectively antagonized by neostigmine
a) Diazepam    b) Succinylcholine        c) Tubocurarine   d) Aminophylline
Q.19 Vitamin D3 is
a) 22, 23-dihydro-5, 6-cis-ergocalciferol                         b) 5, 6-cis-cholcalciferol
c) 7-dehydrocalciferol                                                      d) 21, 24-dihydro-5, 6-cis-ergocalciferol
Q.20 R.W.C. is used to identify the strength of an
a) Antibiotic           b) Antipyretic                c) Antiseptic                   d) Anti-inflammatory

Q.21 The effective property of solution is related to the
a) total number of solute particles      b) pH        c) Number of ions      d) number of ingredients
Q.22 The essential structural unit for the anthelmintic activity of Mebendazole is
a) Benzoyl group      b) Benzimidazole        c) Methylcarbamate        d) Imidazole
Q.23 The anticoagulant activity of Heparin Sodium Injection I.P. is estimated by using
a) Female rat           b) Male dog                 c) Rabbit                   d) Sheep
Q.24 The biological half-life of a drug (first order kinetic) is represented by
a) 1/k                     b) log k                  c) 0.693/k                         d) 2.303/k
Q.25 Infra-red spectrometry is a convenient method for understanding of
a) Drug receptor interaction                      b) Functional group Identification
c) Physio-chemical properties                   d) Conformational properties
Q.26 Most commonly used antimicrobial agent for intraperitoneal dialysis fluid is
a) Chorocresol    b) Bezalkonium chloride     c) Isopropyl alcohol      d) None of these
Q.27 In the steroid nucleus, there are
a) Six chiral centre with nucleus i.e. 5, 8, 9, 10, 13 and 14
b) Seven chiral centre with nucleus i.e. 3, 8, 9, 10,11, 12, 13 and 14
c) Six chiral centre with nucleus i.e. 3, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12
d) Six chiral centre with nucleus i.e. 5, 7, 9, 10, 13 and 14
Q.28 Thermo labile immiscible liquid can be separated by
a) Decantation      b) Dilution     c) Capillary centrifugation       d) Counter-current distribution
Q.29 Sulphamethoxazle is an antibacterial drug it is a
a)short acting drug  b)short & intermediate acting drug   c)long acting drug   d)mixed acting drug
Q.30 Wave number is the number of waves
a) per second         b) per centimeter                 c) per inch                 d) per centimeter2
Q.31 The raw material for the synthesis of Propranolol is
a) α-naphthylamine     b) β-naphthol        c) α-naphthol        d) 1-naphthaldehyde
Q.32 All the statements mentioned below about chloral hydrate is true except that is
a) Produce hypnosis  b) Produce analgesia  c) Produce dependence d) Irritates gastric mucosa
Q.33 In Drug and Cosmetics Act and Rules there under list of substances that should be sold by retail only on prescription of Registered Medical Practitioner is given in:
a) Schedule H                   b) Schedule V          c) Schedule X                          d) Schedule Q
Q.34 Which is the ideal combination for testing the solubility of an enteric coating
capsule in alkaline medium?
a) Sodium bicarbonate + Potassium hydroxide + Pepsin
b) Sodium bicarbonate + Sodium tauroglycocholate + Pepsin
c) Sodium bicarbonate + Pancreatin + Sodium Tauroglycocholate
 d) Sodium bicarbonate + Bilirubin
Q.35 Oxazepam is used in the relief of psychoneurosis. It has lower incidences of side
effects and reduced toxicity due to:
a) N-demethylation                               b) Ring oxidation
c) Aromatic hydroxylation                   d) Conjugation of 3- hydroxyl group
Q.36 The rate of diffusion of drugs across biological membrane is
a) directly proportional to the concentration gradient  b) dependent on the route of administration c) Indirectly proportional to membrane thickness        d) none of these
Q.37 In sugar coating of tablets, sub-coating is done
a) To prevent moisture absorption            b) To round the edges and built tablet size
c) To smoothen the surface                       d) To prevent the tablet from breaking due to vibration
Q.38 One of the detector is used in gas chromatography is
s) Bolometer    b) Thermal conductivity detector     c) Golay detector    d) Geiger counter
Q.39 Alkaloid in cinchona bark are detected by
a) Iodine test    b) Thalloquin test    c) Leibermann-Burchard test    d) Nessler;s test
Q.40 2-amino-5-chloro benzophenone is convenient starting material for the synthesis of:
a) Nitrazepam           b) Diazepam              c) Chloramphenicol          d) Trimethoprim
(2) Match the following
Q.1 Given below are some of the association colloids. Match the correct type from the list a to e.
1) Sodium lauryl sulphate                                                a) Anionic
2) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide                           b) Cationic
3) Polyethylene lauryl sulphate                                        c) Nonionic
4) Dimethyl dodecyl ammonia propane sulphate            d) Ampholytic
                                                                                         e) none
Q.2 Given below are the essential pharmacophores for the drugs mentioned from a to e.
1) 1, 4-benzodiazepine                                            a) Pindolol
2) β-lactam fused with thiozolidine                        b) Amoxicillin
3) Ethylenediamine                                                 c) Ethambutol
4) Aryloxypropanolamine                                       d) Salbutamol
                                                                                e) Oxazepam

Q.3 The drugs mentioned below are produced by species mentioned from a to e.
1) Rifampicin                            a) Streptomyces griseus
2) Nystatin                                b) Bacillus polymyxa
3) Amphotericin B                    c) Streptomyces mediterranei
4) Candicidin                            d) Streptomyces nodosus
                                                  e) Streptomyces noursei
Q.4 Given below are the some important drugs. Find out the correct constituents listed a to e derived from them
1) Cephaelis Ipecacuanha                       a) Cineole
2) Papaver somniferum                          b) Safrole and Myristicin
3) Cascara sagrada                                 c) Morphine
4) Myristica fragrans                              d) Anthraquinone glycosides
                                                                e) Emetine
Q.5 The side chain responsible for the biological activity of drug listed from a to e are given
1) .NH-(CH3)CH-CH2-CH2-CH2-N(C2H5)2              a) Amodiaquine
2) .CH2-CH2-SO2-CH2-CH3                                      b) Tinidazole
3) .O-CH2-CH2-N(CH3)2                                          c) Chloroquine
4) .NH-C6H3(OH)CH2(C2H5)2                                   d) Diphenhydramine
                                                                                    e) Chlorpromazine
Q.6 The following forms under Schedule A of the Drug and Cosmetic Act are utilized for
applying for licenses listed a to e. Match them correctly
1) Form 8                      a) Application to Import drugs for personal use
2) Form 12 A                 b) Application for grant of license to sell, stock or distribute the drug
3) Form 19                     c) Application to import biological products
4) Form 24 C                   d) Application to manufacture homeopathy drugs
                                         e) Application to import drugs for research purposes
Q.7 Listed below are the instruments used for measuring the factors given in a to e.
1) Rotational viscometers                    a) Shear rate/shear stress & viscosity
2) Penetrometers                                  b) Melting point
3) Hansen-paddle equipment        c) For consistency and hardness of relatively rigid semisolids
4) Glass electrode                                 d) Dissolution of granules and tablets
                                                              e) pH indicating electrode
Q.8 Symptoms of the following diseases are indicated from a to e. Match them correctly.
1) Cushing’s syndrome            a) Hyperthyroidism
2) Addison’s disease                b) Inflammatory bowel
3) Grave’s disease                    c) Primary adrenal insufficiency
4) Crohn’s disease                    d) Decreased production of Cortisol
                                                  e) Increased production of Cortisol
Q.9 Some possible causes are mentioned in a to e for the following defects during the
film coating of tablet. Match them correctly.
1) Chipping                     a) Poor spreading of sprayed droplets
2) Cracking                     b) Over heating during spraying
3) Orange peel                 c) High internal stress in film
4) Blistering                     d) Excessive coating process
                                         e) Precipitation of polymer due to high temperature or poor solvent
Q.10 Match the biological activity listed a to e for the following drugs:
1) O-2-naphthyl-m, N-dimethyl thiocarbamate                                           a) Antineoplastic
2) Trans-1,4,5,6-tetrahydro-1-methyl-2-[2-(2-theinyl)vinyl]pyrimidine     b) Anthelmintic
3) 2, 4-diamino-5(p-chlorophenyl) ]-6-ethylpyrimidine                               c) Antimalarial
4) p-di-2-chloroethyl) amino phenyl butyric acid                                         d) Antifungal
                                                                                                                       e) Hypnotic/sedative
Q.11 Match the following method of sterilization listed a to e for the following drugs:
1) Tetracycline injection                       a) sterilized by dry heat
2) Insulin injection                                b) Sterilized by heating with bactericide
3) Quinine injection                               c) Sterilized by bacterial filtration
4) Morphine injection                            d) Prepared by aseptic method
                                                                e) Sterilized by heating in autoclave
Q.12 Given below are the receptors and their antagonists. Match them correctly.
1) GABA receptor                  a) Buprenorphine
2) Histamine-H2-receptor       b) Diazepam
3) Opiate receptor                  c) Ranitidine
4) β-adrenergic receptor         d) Nifedipine
                                                e) Atenolol
Q.13 The names of equation for various expressions are given below. Match them correctly
1) Id = 607nCD1/2m2/3t1/6                           a) Mark - Houwink
2) V = πr4tΔP/8l.n.                                   b) Ilkovic
3) [n] = kMα                                              c) Poiseuille
4) Tz = (0.5 - 0.67) Tm                               d) Boyer-Beaman
                                                                   e) Beer-Lambert
Q.14 Various equations are used for size reduction of materials of different nature.
1) Rod mill                               a) Sticky material
2) Fluid energy mill                  b) Abrasive material
3) Cutting mill                          c) Thermo labile material
4) Revolving mill                      d) Fibrous material
                                                   e) Thermo stable material
Q.15 Match the drugs in a to e which inhibit the following enzymes.
1) Carbonic anhydrase                              a) Dicloxacillin
2) Dihydrofolate synthetase                      b) Physiostigmine
3) β-lactamase                                           c) Acetazolamide
4) Acetylcholinestrase                               d) Sulphonamide
                                                                   e) Ibuprofen
Q.16 Given below are some important drugs. Appropriate tests are listed (a to e) . Match
them correctly
1) cardiac glycosides                  a) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde
2) Ergot alkaloids                       b) Fluorescence with dilute H2SO4
3) Quinoline sulphate                 c) Leibermann Buchard test
4) Camphor                                d) 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
                                                    e) Benedict’s test
Q.17 The undesirable effects of antibiotics are listed in a to e. Match them correctly.
1) Tetracycline                        a) Gray baby syndrome
2) Streptomycin                      b) Discolouration of teeth
3) Chloramphenicol                c) Jaundice
4) Rifampicin                          d) Obesity
                                                e) Ototoxicity
Q.18 Choose the most appropriate starting material listed a to e for the synthesis of the
following drugs
1) Riboflavin                      a) p-anisidine
2) Progesterone                  b) 3, 4-dimethylaniline and D-ribose
3) Isoniazid                        c) Diasogenin
4) Indomethacin                 d) γ-picoline
                                           e) Lumiflavine
Q.19 Absorption frequencies (cm-1) spectroscopy for carbonyl groups are given (a to e).
1) .COCl                         a) 1720
2) .O-CO-O-                   b) 1735
3) .CHO                          c) 1750
4) .CONH2                      d) 1776
                                         e) 1812
Q.20 Following are the prefixes used in nomenclature which signifies as indicated from a to e.
1) Levo                             a) Not all the same atoms
2) Ortho                            b) Rotates the plain of polarized light to the left
3) Poly                              c) Identical molecules
4)Hetero                            d) Signifies the 1, 2-positions in the benzene ring
                                          e) Threo-configuration
Answer Key-1990 (Multiple Choice)
1.c 2.a 3.b 4.b 5.d 6.a 7.c 8.a 9.c 10.a 11.d 12.a 13.b 14.c 15.b 16.c 17.d 18.c 19.b 20.c 21.a 22.d 23.d 24.c 25.b 26.c 27.a 28.a 29.b 30.b 31.c 32.b 33.a 34.c 35.d 36.a 37.b 38.b 39.b 40.b
Match the column
1. (1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d                   2. (1) e (2) b (3) c (4) a
3. (1) c (2) e (3) d (4) b                   4. (1) e (2) c (3) d (4) b
5. (1) c (2) b (3) d (4) a                    6. (1) c (2) a (3) b (4) d
7. (1) a (2) c (3) d (4) e                     8. (1) e (2) c (3) a (4) b
9. (1) d (2) c (3) a (4) b                    10. (1) d (2) b (3) c (4) a
11. (1) d (2) c (3) e (4) b                  12. (1) b (2) c (3) a (4) e
13. (1) b (2) c (3) a (4) d                  14. (1) a (2) c (3) d (4) b
15. (1) c (2) d (3) a (4) b                 16. (1) c (2) a (3) b (4) d
17. (1) b (2) e (3) a (4) c                  18. (1) b (2) c (3) d (4) a
19. (1) d (2) e (3) b (4) a                 20. (1) b (2) d (3) c (4) a

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